In the personal—ex ante cell, is “willingness to pay for insurance” a good proxy for willingness to pay for treatment or does that assume an even less-bounded rationality than really exists?

Similarly, in the social—ex ante cell, is willingness to pay more tax a good proxy for willingness to pay for the treatment of others?

And in the Social case, I don’t understand what “others” might be referred to: what does pp=0; 0<po<1; mean??? The probability that “others” will require treatment is 1 if by “others” we mean “everyone”. This must mean something else.

If we mean “everyone” the it seems to me there is no difference — not even a theoretical difference between the ex ante and ex post social case.

t